Challenge of the Week / Trauma / 01.03.20

A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?

Challenge of the Week / Foot & Ankle / 11.01.19

A 61-year-old female with type-2 diabetes presents with midfoot arthritis and an advanced plantar rocker bottom deformity. She has a history of recurrent plantar midfoot ulcers that are currently closed. She has no signs of infection and her HbA1c is 5.5%. Her ulcers have persisted despite orthotics and shoewear modification. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?