Challenge of the Week / Hand & Wrist / 01.10.20

A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?

Challenge of the Week / Hand & Wrist / 06.28.19

A 37-year-old male patient who is a construction worker presents after suffering a thumb injury during a fall 1 week ago. He has pain and bruising on the ulnar side of the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. There is greater than 40° of valgus laxity, both in extension and 30° of MCP joint flexion. There is no appreciable endpoint during stress testing. Plain radiographs show no fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?