A patient with Ollier disease undergoes reconstruction of numerous phalangeal and metacarpal deformities via corticotomy and enchondroma excision. Following the procedure, he heals well with an improvement in function. Which of the following accurately describes the need for further imaging or monitoring for this patient?
A defect in the apical ectodermal ridge (AER) will lead to which of the following types of congenital limb difference?
A 45-year-old male patient presents with a painless 5-mm dark stripe under his fingernail that he noticed about 6 months ago. He denies trauma to the area and states that recently, the stripe has started to grow proximally just past the cuticle. Radiographs are unremarkable. Which of the following is the next step in management?
A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?
A 12-year-old female patient has triggering of her long finger that has persisted despite nonoperative measures. The patient and her parents are ready to proceed with operative intervention. In addition to release of the A1 pulley, which of the following operative interventions will most likely be necessary?
A 20-year-old female patient sustains a dorsal injury to her long finger that results in a complete loss of her nail bed. The patient is involved in the performing arts and states she needs to have a new nail grow. Which of the following is the best option to provide her with new nail plate growth?
A 37-year-old male patient who is a construction worker presents after suffering a thumb injury during a fall 1 week ago. He has pain and bruising on the ulnar side of the thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. There is greater than 40° of valgus laxity, both in extension and 30° of MCP joint flexion. There is no appreciable endpoint during stress testing. Plain radiographs show no fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?