Challenge of the Week / Hip / 01.17.20

An 82-year-old female patient presents with a 3-month history of severe right groin pain. She has a medical history that is noteworthy for diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and stroke. She describes pain in the buttocks with ambulation, with radiation to the anterior aspect of the thigh and leg. She is able to ambulate, although with a mild limp. Her hip examination is normal, apart from iliopsoas weakness. Radiographs show mild osteoarthritis of the right hip. Which of the following is the appropriate next step?