Challenge of the Week / Trauma / 01.03.20

A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?

Challenge of the Week / Trauma / 10.18.19

A 35-year-old male patient who is right-hand dominant and works as an accountant is seen in the emergency department with closed radial and ulnar shaft fractures. He has insulin-dependent diabetes-mellitus and his current HbA1c is 5.8%. The radial fracture is comminuted and has 5 mm of displacement, but is not shortened. The ulnar shaft fracture has no comminution. The elbow and wrist joints are reduced and well-aligned. Which of the following would be the appropriate definitive management for this patient's fractures?