A 45-year-old male patient sustained a midshaft clavicle fracture 2 years ago and now presents with persistent pain and mobility at the fracture site with no history of recent trauma. Which of the following complications does this patient most likely manifest?
When treating male versus female patients with femoroacetabular impingement, which of the following sex differences may impact the treatment plan?
A 29-year-old female patient reports perineal hypoesthesia and dysesthesia on the operative side immediately following hip arthroscopy for treatment of a labral tear and femoroacetabular impingement. Which of the following operative techniques might have decreased the risk of this complication?
A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?
A 35-year-old male patient who is right-hand dominant and works as an accountant is seen in the emergency department with closed radial and ulnar shaft fractures. He has insulin-dependent diabetes-mellitus and his current HbA1c is 5.8%. The radial fracture is comminuted and has 5 mm of displacement, but is not shortened. The ulnar shaft fracture has no comminution. The elbow and wrist joints are reduced and well-aligned. Which of the following would be the appropriate definitive management for this patient's fractures?
Which of the following patients is best treated with total elbow arthroplasty?
Which of the following radiographic signs is an indication for nonoperative management of acetabular fractures?