Challenge of the Week

Challenge of the Week / Hip / 01.17.20

An 82-year-old female patient presents with a 3-month history of severe right groin pain. She has a medical history that is noteworthy for diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and stroke. She describes pain in the buttocks with ambulation, with radiation to the anterior aspect of the thigh and leg. She is able to ambulate, although with a mild limp. Her hip examination is normal, apart from iliopsoas weakness. Radiographs show mild osteoarthritis of the right hip. Which of the following is the appropriate next step?

Challenge of the Week / Hand & Wrist / 01.10.20

A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?

Challenge of the Week / Trauma / 01.03.20

A 65-year-old female patient presents with persistent right groin pain 6 months after open reduction and internal fixation of a right pertrochanteric femur fracture. Imaging shows a cephalomedullary nail fixation with instability. She has no history of delayed wound healing. Evaluation for an infection is negative. Which of the following is the best option for revision for this patient?